NR568 Week 4: Midterm Exam [Jan-2026]

A 42-year-old patient presents to your clinic with a 3-day history of fever, cough, and shortness of breath. The patient denies any significant medical history, reports no medication allergies, and lives in an area where macrolide resistance to Streptococcus pneumoniae is low. Which antibiotic is the MOST appropriate choice for treatment?

Answers: A – D

A. Azithromycin ✅
B. Amoxicillin/clavulanate
C. Levofloxacin
D. Amoxicillin

Which antiviral drug is the MOST appropriate choice for treating herpes zoster (shingles) in adults?

Answers: A – D

A. Acyclovir
B. Zanamivir
C. Valacyclovir ✅
D. Oseltamivir

A 52-year-old postmenopausal female patient presents with severe hot flashes and night sweats. She has an intact uterus and no history of breast cancer, thromboembolic events, or liver disease. Which hormone therapy would be most appropriate for managing her symptoms?

Answers: A – D

A. Estrogen combined with progestin ✅
B. Progestin combined with testosterone
C. Testosterone combined with estrogen
D. Estrogen without any combination of hormones

A 55-year-old immunocompromised male patient presents with white patches on his tongue and inner cheeks and is confirmed to have an oral candidiasis infection. Which of the following medications should the nurse practitioner prescribe for this client?

Answers: A – D

A. Oral fluconazole ✅
B. Oral terbinafine
C. Topical miconazole
D. Topical nystatin

What is the primary purpose of obtaining a culture before initiating antimicrobial therapy?

Answers: A – D

A. To determine the patient’s immune response to the infection
B. To identify the causative organism and its antimicrobial susceptibility ✅
C. To rule out the need for broad-spectrum antibiotics
D. To confirm that an infection is present

For a patient diagnosed with otitis externa caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which antibiotic would be the MOST appropriate initial treatment?

Answers: A – D

A. Vancomycin IV
B. Doxycycline otic drops
C. Amoxicillin oral
D. Ciprofloxacin otic drops ✅

What is the primary reason antiretroviral therapy (ART) cannot cure HIV infection?

Answers: A – D

A. HIV mutates rapidly, creating drug-resistant strains.
B. ART does not eliminate HIV, allowing replication to resume after discontinuation. ✅
C. Patients with HIV cannot tolerate the side effects of ART long-term.
D. ART does not suppress viral replication effectively.

A 28-year-old female presents with itching, redness, and scaling between her toes. The clinical presentation is consistent with tinea pedis. Which antifungal medication and regimen is MOST appropriate?

Answers: A – D

A. Topical butenafine cream applied twice daily for 4 weeks
B. Topical nystatin cream applied twice daily for 7 days
C. Oral fluconazole 150 mg weekly for 4 weeks
D. Oral terbinafine 250 mg daily for 6 weeks ✅………………………………purchase this current exam at $60 only