NR566 Week 7: Quiz

A 34-year-old woman with a long history of migraines reports that her current oral medication is ineffective because she vomits shortly after taking it. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate next step in her abortive treatment plan?

Answers: A – D

A. Prescribe a tricyclic antidepressant
B. Add a daily prophylactic beta-blocker
C. Increase the oral dose of her current medication
D. Switch to a triptan nasal spray formulation ✅

A 79-year-old patient with moderate Alzheimer’s disease is taking memantine. Which statement by the nurse practitioner BEST explains the mechanism and therapeutic purpose of this medication?

Answers: A – D

A. “Memantine prevents beta-amyloid plaque formation and slows disease progression”
B. “Memantine reduces glutamate-induced neuronal injury by blocking NMDA receptors” ✅
C. “Memantine inhibits acetylcholinesterase to increase cholinergic activity in the brain”
D. “Memantine enhances dopamine release to improve memory and alertness”

A 42-year-old patient experiences frequent migraines (≥4 per month) that significantly interfere with daily activities despite using triptans for acute relief. Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate to discuss next?

Answers: A – D

A. Switching to acetaminophen as monotherapy
B. Initiating prophylactic therapy with a beta-blocker ✅
C. Increasing triptan use to daily dosing
D. Recommending opioid therapy for severe pain

What is the primary focus of pharmacologic therapy for patients with epilepsy?

Answers: A – D

A. Increase the frequency of seizures
B. Cure the condition
C. Control seizures while minimizing side effects ✅
D. Prevent the need for lifestyle changes……………………………….purchase the entire quiz at $20 only