NR603 Week 2: Quiz [Sept 2026]

A 35-year-old female presents with pelvic pain that has progressively worsened over the past 5 days. She also reports fever, unintentional weight loss over the last month, and intermittent urinary incontinence. On the physical exam, she has suprapubic tenderness and decreased strength in her left lower extremity. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate clinical action?

A. Refer to urology
B. Recommend supportive care and follow-up in one week
✅ C. Order imaging and laboratory work
D. Prescribe antibiotics

A 56-year-old male presents with a new-onset headache that is progressively worsening. He denies nausea or vomiting but does report recent unintentional weight loss and persistent fatigue. He smokes 3 cigarettes a day and drinks no alcohol. On physical examination, there is mild papilledema. Which of the following combinations of clinical features raises the GREATEST concern for a secondary headache disorder requiring further evaluation?

A. Headache in a male patient over 50
✅ B. Progressive headache, systemic symptoms, and papilledema
C. Smoking and normal fundoscopic exam
D. Sudden onset headache described with nausea and vomiting

A patient presents for a routine evaluation. She has no complaints other than occasional tingling in the right lower extremity. Neurologic exam reveals full strength (5/5) in all extremities, intact coordination, and normal reflexes. Bilateral lower sensation is intact to light touch and pin prick. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate clinical interpretation?

A. The findings are indicative of cauda equina syndrome and require emergent surgical referral
B. The findings suggest an upper motor neuron lesion requiring urgent imaging
C. The exam is normal and no further follow-up is needed
✅ D. The findings are consistent with a peripheral nerve irritation and warrant further monitoring.………………………………………..purchase this entire quiz at $25 only