NR602 Week 8: Final Exam (june-2026)

NR602 Week 8: Final Exam [June-2026]

A 16-year-old adolescent who denies sexual activity and with a negative sexually transmitted infection (STI) risk presents with cramping pain that begins with menses and has occurred monthly since menarche. Her history strongly suggests primary dysmenorrhea, and she has no fever, abnormal discharge, or pelvic masses. Based on current best practices, what is the MOST appropriate next step in evaluation?

1. Performing a routine pelvic examination to assess for adnexal tenderness
2. Ordering pelvic imaging to rule out cysts or structural abnormalities
3. Completing a rectal examination to evaluate for deep pelvic endometrial implants
4. Deferring pelvic examination because her history is consistent with primary dysmenorrhea ✓

A patient presents 8 weeks postpartum with persistent fatigue, sleep disturbance, feelings of hopelessness, and difficulty bonding with her infant. Symptoms have been present for 4 weeks. What is the MOST appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment?

1. Antipsychotic medication
2. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor ✓
3. Lithium
4. Benzodiazepine

A 48-year-old endurance athlete presents with vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. She reports amenorrhea for 8 months. Which underlying mechanism MOST likely explains her symptoms?

1. Increased ovarian follicular activity
2. Increased estrogen production from peripheral conversion
3. Hypothalamic suppression leading to decreased estrogen production ✓
4. Increased prolactin levels from pituitary tumor

A pregnant patient at 28 weeks has routine labs drawn. Her results show a hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL, a hematocrit of 32%, and a mild increase in leukocytes. Based on expected laboratory changes in pregnancy, what is the BEST interpretation of these findings?

1. The results indicate early iron deficiency anemia requiring immediate iron infusion therapy
2. The elevated white blood cell count suggests an acute infection requiring further diagnostic evaluation
3. The reductions in hemoglobin and hematocrit represent pathologic blood loss and need urgent investigation
4. The findings are consistent with normal pregnancy changes related to hemodilution and physiologic leukocytosis ✓

A patient says “If you need to do it, just get it over with,” while tensing and bringing her knees together during speculum insertion. What is the BEST next step?

1. Stop, acknowledge the statement, and offer options to pause, modify, or defer ✓
2. Reassure the patient the exam is almost done and continue
3. Continue quickly to minimize total exposure time
4. Ask the patient to relax to allow completion

A 6-year-old child presents with a 3-day history of fever, decreased appetite, and new onset of vomiting. The parent reports no urine output in the last 10 hours. On exam, the child is listless, has dry mucous membranes, delayed capillary refill, and tachycardia. Based on pediatric primary care assessment principles, which action is the MOST appropriate next step?

1. Prescribe an antiemetic to control vomiting before reassessing hydration status
2. Refer the child for urgent evaluation for possible moderate to severe dehydration requiring intravenous fluids ✓
3. Order routine outpatient labs and schedule a follow-up visit in 24 hours
4. Recommend oral rehydration therapy at home every 5–10 minutes to restore fluid balance

A novice NP is unsure whether to include carotid auscultation during a routine ambulatory gynecology visit physical exam. What is the MOST appropriate technique for the NP to perform?

1. Include only maneuvers that are part of a standardized template
2. Include maneuvers only when the NP can state why the maneuver’s information is needed ✓
3. Include all maneuvers to avoid missing pathology
4. Omit cardiovascular assessment unless the patient reports chest pain

A 15-year-old adolescent is brought to the clinic by a parent who reports declining grades and social withdrawal. When interviewed privately, the adolescent reports feeling “down” for the past 3 weeks, loss of interest in sports, poor sleep, fatigue, difficulty concentrating, and feelings of worthlessness. Which conclusion is MOST appropriate based on this information?

1. The adolescent meets the criteria for major depressive disorder with significant functional impairment ✓
2. A diagnosis of major depressive disorder cannot be made until symptoms persist for 6 months
3. The symptoms are consistent with normal adolescent mood variation and require reassurance only
4. The presentation suggests mild depressive symptoms without the need for further assessment…………………………….purchase all the 100 exam questions and answers at $99 only